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NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is the BEST control to secure application programming interfaces (APIs) that may contain personal information?
- A. Restricting access to authorized users
- B. Sharing only digitally signed APIs
- C. Encrypting APIs with the organization's private key
- D. Requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) when sharing APIs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Restricting access to authorized users is the best control to secure application programming interfaces (APIs) that may contain personal information, as it would prevent unauthorized access, modification or disclosure of the personal information by third parties or intermediaries. Restricting access to authorized users can be achieved by using various methods, such as authentication, authorization, encryption, tokens or certificates.
The other options are not effective controls to secure APIs that may contain personal information. Encrypting APIs with the organization's private key is not a feasible or desirable method, as it would make the APIs unreadable by anyone who does not have the corresponding public key, which would defeat the purpose of using APIs for interoperability and integration. Requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) when sharing APIs is not a reliable or enforceable method, as it would depend on the compliance and cooperation of the parties who receive the APIs, and it would not prevent unauthorized access, modification or disclosure of the personal information by third parties or intermediaries who are not bound by the NDAs. Sharing only digitally signed APIs is not a sufficient method, as it would only ensure the authenticity and integrity of the APIs, but it would not prevent unauthorized access, modification or disclosure of the personal information by third parties or intermediaries who can read or intercept the APIs1, p. 90-91 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 24
Data collected by a third-party vendor and provided back to the organization may not be protected according to the organization's privacy notice. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?
- A. Validate contract compliance.
- B. Re-assess the information security requirements.
- C. Obtain independent assurance of current practices.
- D. Review the privacy policy.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is an IT privacy practitioner's BEST recommendation to reduce privacy risk before an organization provides personal data to a third party?
- A. Anonymization
- B. Encryption
- C. Tokenization
- D. Aggregation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following should an IT privacy practitioner do FIRST before an organization migrates personal data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution?
- A. Conduct a security risk assessment.
- B. Develop and communicate a data security plan.
- C. Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).
- D. Ensure strong encryption is used.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The first thing that an IT privacy practitioner should do before an organization migrates personal data from an on-premise solution to a cloud-hosted solution is to perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA). A PIA is a systematic process of identifying and evaluating the potential privacy risks and impacts of a data processing activity or system. A PIA helps to ensure that privacy is considered and integrated into the design and development of data processing activities or systems, and that privacy risks are mitigated or eliminated. A PIA also helps to determine the appropriate measures to protect personal data in a cloud-hosted solution, such as encryption, pseudonymization, anonymization, access control, audit trail, breach notification, etc. A PIA also helps to comply with the applicable privacy regulations and standards that govern data processing activities in a cloud-hosted solution. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 99
NEW QUESTION # 27
An organization has a policy requiring the encryption of personal data if transmitted through email. Which of the following is the BEST control to ensure the effectiveness of this policy?
- A. Enforce annual attestation to policy compliance.
- B. Conduct regular control self-assessments (CSAs).
- C. Provide periodic user awareness training on data encryption.
- D. Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) tool.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is the BEST indication of a highly effective privacy training program?
- A. HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization_
- B. No privacy incidents have been reported in the last year
- C. Members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy
- D. Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The best indication of a highly effective privacy training program is that members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy, because this shows that the training program has successfully raised the awareness and knowledge of the workforce on the importance, principles and practices of data privacy, and how they can contribute to the organization's privacy objectives and compliance. According to ISACA, one of the key elements of a privacy training program is to define and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the workforce in relation to data privacy1. Members of the workforce who understand their roles in protecting data privacy are more likely to follow the privacy policies and procedures, report any privacy incidents or issues, and support the privacy culture of the organization2. Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy, no privacy incidents have been reported in the last year, and HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization are not as reliable as members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy, as they do not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of the privacy training program, but rather the performance of other factors such as audit processes, incident management systems, or HR policies.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when using advanced data sanitization methods to ensure privacy data will be unrecoverable?
- A. Subject matter expertise
- B. Location of data
- C. Type of media
- D. Regulatory compliance requirements
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following MOST effectively protects against the use of a network sniffer?
- A. A honeypot environment
- B. Transport layer encryption
- C. An intrusion detection system (IDS)
- D. Network segmentation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective records management program for personal data?
- A. A retention schedule is in place.
- B. The legal department has approved the retention policy.
- C. Archived data is used for future analytics.
- D. All sensitive data has been tagged.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 32
An organization is concerned with authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Which of the following technologies is the BEST choice to mitigate this risk?
- A. Email filtering system
- B. Mobile device management (MDM)
- C. Intrusion monitoring
- D. User behavior analytics
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
User behavior analytics is a technology that uses data analysis and machine learning to monitor, detect and respond to anomalous or malicious user activities, such as accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. User behavior analytics is the best choice to mitigate this risk, as it would help to identify and prevent insider threats, data breaches, fraud or misuse of data by authorized individuals.
User behavior analytics can also help to enforce policies and controls, such as access control, audit trail or data loss prevention. The other options are not as effective as user behavior analytics in mitigating this risk. Email filtering system is a technology that scans and blocks incoming or outgoing emails that contain spam, malware or phishing attempts, but it does not address the issue of authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Intrusion monitoring is a technology that monitors and alerts on unauthorized or malicious attempts to access a system or network, but it does not address the issue of authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Mobile device management (MDM) is a technology that manages and secures mobile devices that are used to access or store organizational data, but it does not address the issue of authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes1, p. 92 References: 1:
CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following vulnerabilities would have the GREATEST impact on the privacy of information?
- A. Out-of-date antivirus signatures
- B. Poor patch management
- C. Private key exposure
- D. Lack of password complexity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The vulnerability that would have the greatest impact on the privacy of information is private key exposure, because it would compromise the encryption and decryption of the information, as well as the authentication and integrity of the communicating parties. A private key is a secret and unique value that is used to encrypt or decrypt data, or to sign or verify digital signatures. If an attacker gains access to the private key, they can read, modify, or impersonate the data or the sender, which would violate the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of the information12.
References:
* CDPSE Review Manual, Chapter 2 - Privacy Architecture, Section 2.3 - Privacy Architecture Implementation3.
* CDPSE Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer All-in-One Exam Guide, Chapter 2 - Privacy
* Architecture, Section 2.4 - Remote Access4.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is the BEST approach to minimize privacy risk when collecting personal data?
- A. Use a third party to collect, store, and process the data.
- B. Collect data through a secure organizational web server.
- C. Aggregate the data immediately upon collection.
- D. Collect only the data necessary to meet objectives.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following should FIRST be established before a privacy office starts to develop a data protection and privacy awareness campaign?
- A. Business objectives of senior leaders
- B. Strategic goals of the organization
- C. Detailed documentation of data privacy processes
- D. Contract requirements for independent oversight
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The strategic goals of the organization should be established first before a privacy office starts to develop a data protection and privacy awareness campaign, because they provide the direction, purpose, and scope of the campaign. The strategic goals of the organization reflect its vision, mission, values, and objectives, as well as its alignment with the relevant privacy laws and regulations, stakeholder expectations, and industry best practices. The privacy office should design and implement the awareness campaign in a way that supports and promotes the strategic goals of the organization, as well as measures and evaluates its effectiveness and impact.
References:
* CDPSE Review Manual, 2023 Edition, Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Section 1.1.2: Privacy Strategy Implementation, p. 19
* CDPSE Review Manual, 2023 Edition, Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Section 1.3.2: Privacy Awareness and Training Program, p. 38-39
* ICO launches data awareness campaign1
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is the FIRST step toward the effective management of personal data assets?
- A. Analyze metadata.
- B. Create a personal data inventory
- C. Minimize personal data
- D. Establish data security controls.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The first step toward the effective management of personal data assets is to create a personal data inventory, which is a comprehensive list of the personal data that an organization collects, processes, stores, transfers, and disposes of. A personal data inventory helps an organization to understand the types, sources, locations, owners, purposes, and retention periods of the personal data it holds, as well as the risks and obligations associated with them. A personal data inventory is essential for complying with data privacy laws and regulations, such as the GDPR or the PDPA, which require organizations to implement data protection principles and practices, such as obtaining consent, providing notice, ensuring data quality and security, respecting data subject rights, and reporting data breaches. A personal data inventory also helps an organization to identify and mitigate data privacy risks and gaps, and to implement data minimization and data security controls.
References:
* ISACA, Data Privacy Audit/Assurance Program, Control Objective 3: Data Inventory and Classification1
* ISACA, Simplify and Contextualize Your Data Classification Efforts2
* PDPC, Managing Personal Data3
* PDPC, PDPA Assessment Tool for Organisations4
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure third-party providers that process an organization's personal data are addressed as part of the data privacy strategy?
- A. Require data dictionaries from service providers that handle the organization's personal data.
- B. Outsource personal data processing to the same third party
- C. Require service level agreements (SLAs) to ensure data integrity while safeguarding confidentiality
- D. Require independent audits of the providers' data privacy controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Requiring independent audits of the providers' data privacy controls is the best way to ensure third-party providers that process an organization's personal data are addressed as part of the data privacy strategy.
Independent audits can verify that the providers are complying with the applicable data privacy laws and regulations, as well as the organization's own policies and standards. Independent audits can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the providers' data privacy controls and recommend corrective actions or improvements.
References:
* What Is Your Privacy and Data Protection Strategy? - ISACA
* Why data privacy and third-party risk teams need to work together - OneTrust
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following describes a user's "right to be forgotten"?
- A. The data is being used to comply with legal obligations or the public interest.
- B. The individual objects despite legitimate grounds for processing.
- C. The data is no longer required for the purpose originally collected.
- D. The individual's legal residence status has recently changed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The right to be forgotten is a privacy right that allows individuals to request the deletion or removal of their personal data from a data controller's records or systems under certain conditions. One of these conditions is when the data is no longer required for the purpose originally collected, meaning that the data has become obsolete, irrelevant or excessive for fulfilling the initial purpose for which it was obtained or processed by the data controller. The other options are not valid conditions for exercising the right to be forgotten. The data is being used to comply with legal obligations or public interest is an exception that may prevent the data controller from deleting or removing the data upon request, as there may be overriding legitimate grounds for retaining the data for legal compliance or public interest reasons. The individual objects despite legitimate grounds for processing is a condition for exercising the right to object, not the right to be forgotten, which allows individuals to oppose the processing of their personal data based on their particular situation or for direct marketing purposes. The individual's legal residence status has recently changed is not a relevant factor for exercising the right to be forgotten, as it does not affect the necessity or relevance of the data for its original purpose1, p. 107-108 References: 1: CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version)
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the BEST way to hide sensitive personal data that is in use in a data lake?
- A. Data encryption
- B. Data minimization
- C. Data truncation
- D. Data masking
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
A software development organization with remote personnel has implemented a third-party virtualized workspace to allow the teams to collaborate. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
- A. There is a lack of privacy awareness and training among remote personnel.
- B. Personal data could potentially be exfiltrated through the virtual workspace.
- C. The third-party workspace is hosted in a highly regulated jurisdiction.
- D. The organization's products are classified as intellectual property.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following practices BEST indicates an organization follows the data minimization principle?
- A. Data is only accessible on a need-to-know basis.
- B. Data is regularly reviewed tor its relevance
- C. Data is encrypted before storage.
- D. Data is pseudonymized when being backed up.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The practice that best indicates an organization follows the data minimization principle is that data is regularly reviewed for its relevance. The data minimization principle is one of the core principles of data protection under various laws and regulations, such as the GDPR or the CCPA. It states that personal data should be adequate, relevant, and limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes for which they are processed.
By regularly reviewing the data they hold, organizations can ensure that they do not collect or retain excessive or unnecessary data that may pose privacy risks or violate data subject rights.
Data is pseudonymized when being backed up, data is encrypted before storage, or data is only accessible on a need-to-know basis are also good practices for data protection, but they do not directly indicate that the organization follows the data minimization principle. Pseudonymization is a process of replacing identifying information in data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms. Pseudonymization can help enhance the privacy of data by reducing the linkability between data and data subjects, but it does not prevent re-identification or inference attacks. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can help protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data by preventing unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Access control is a process of restricting who can access, modify, or delete data based on their roles, permissions, or credentials. Access control can help prevent unauthorized or inappropriate use of data by limiting the scope of access.
References: Data Minimization | Washington Technology Solutions, What Is Data Minimization? The Principles According to GDPR | 2BAdvice, Data Protection Principles: Core Principles of the GDPR - Cloudian
NEW QUESTION # 42
An organization is concerned with authorized individuals accessing sensitive personal customer information to use for unauthorized purposes. Which of the following technologies is the BEST choice to mitigate this risk?
- A. User behavior analytics
- B. Email filtering system
- C. Mobile device management (MDM)
- D. Intrusion monitoring
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following BEST represents privacy threat modeling methodology?
- A. Mitigating inherent risks and threats associated with privacy control weaknesses
- B. Systematically eliciting and mitigating privacy threats in a software architecture
- C. Replicating privacy scenarios that reflect representative software usage
- D. Reliably estimating a threat actor's ability to exploit privacy vulnerabilities
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 44
What is the BEST method to protect customers' personal data that is forwarded to a central system for analysis?
- A. Deletion
- B. Encryption
- C. Anonymization
- D. Pseudonymization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following poses the GREATEST privacy risk for client-side application processing?
- A. A distributed denial of service attack (DDoS) on the company network
- B. Failure of a firewall protecting the company network
- C. An employee loading personal information on a company laptop
- D. A remote employee placing communication software on a company server
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following technologies BEST facilitates protection of personal data?
- A. Data profiling tools
- B. Data log file monitoring tools
- C. Data loss prevention (DLP) tools
- D. Data discovery and mapping tools
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data loss prevention (DLP) tools are technologies that help to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of personal data. DLP tools can monitor, detect, and block data leakage or exfiltration from various sources, such as endpoints, networks, cloud services, or email. DLP tools can also enforce data protection policies and compliance requirements, such as encryption, masking, or deletion of sensitive data. DLP tools can help to protect personal data from both internal and external threats, such as malicious insiders, hackers, or accidental exposure.
References:
* Data protection solutions rely on technologies such as data loss prevention (DLP), storage with built-in data protection, firewalls, encryption, and endpoint protection, Cloudian
* Top 10 Hot Data Security And Privacy Technologies, Forbes
NEW QUESTION # 47
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ISACA CDPSE (Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer) certification exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge of professionals who are responsible for ensuring data privacy and security in their organization. Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer certification is designed for professionals who have experience in data privacy, security, and compliance, and are responsible for implementing and managing privacy solutions in their organization.
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