Free 365 Days Exam Updates 312-97 dumps with test Engine Practice
Updated Verified 312-97 dumps Q&As - 100% Pass Guaranteed
ECCouncil 312-97 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
| Topic 5 |
|
| Topic 6 |
|
NEW QUESTION # 23
(Alex Hales has been working as a DevSecOps in an IT company that develops software products and web applications for visualizing scientific data. He would like to trigger a Jenkins build job using Git post commit script or hooks that helps his team in saving time by automating commit. Therefore, before triggering the build job, Alex made changes and saved the code in the respective IDE under Git repository and added the changes in the master branch using git add command and ran the post commit script to check the status of the build. Then, he navigated to the Jenkins project and selected the "Trigger build remotely from Build triggers" radio button. It would automate the trigger every time a change gets committed to the project. Alex navigated back to Bash terminal to trigger the build job. Which of the following commands should Alex use in Bash terminal to trigger the build job?)
- A. github commit -m "commit from terminal".
- B. git commit -m "commit from terminal".
- C. github commit -b "commit from terminal".
- D. git commit -b "commit from terminal".
Answer: B
Explanation:
Git post-commit hooks are executed automatically after a commit is successfully created. To trigger the Jenkins build job configured to respond to commits, Alex must create a valid Git commit using the correct Git command. The standard command to commit changes with a message is git commit -m "commit from terminal". Running this command records the changes in the repository and triggers the post-commit hook, which in turn initiates the Jenkins build. Commands using github commit are invalid because github is not a native Git command-line utility. The -b flag is also not used with git commit. Automating build triggers during the Code stage improves efficiency, reduces manual intervention, and ensures continuous integration is consistently enforced.
========
NEW QUESTION # 24
(William Scott has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer at GlobalSec Pvt. Ltd. His organization develops software products related to mobile apps. William would like to exploit Jenkins using Metasploit framework; therefore, he downloaded Metasploit. He would like to initiate an Nmap scan by specifying the target IP to find the version of Jenkins running on the machine. Which of the following commands should William use to find the version of Jenkins running on his machine using Nmap?.)
- A. Nmap -sV -sS "Target IP".
- B. Nmap -sJ -sN "Target IP".
- C. Nmap -sN -sJ "Target IP".
- D. Nmap -sS -sV "Target IP".
Answer: A
Explanation:
To identify the version of a service running on a target system, Nmap uses the -sV option, which enables service version detection. The -sS flag specifies a TCP SYN scan, which is a common and efficient scanning method. Combining these two flags allows Nmap to discover open ports and accurately identify the service versions running on those ports, such as Jenkins. Options A and B reference invalid scan types (-sJ) and do not enable version detection. Option C includes the correct flags but places them in a less conventional order; however, the commonly accepted and documented usage is -sV -sS. Running this scan during the Operate and Monitor stage helps security teams understand exposed services and assess potential attack surfaces.
========
NEW QUESTION # 25
(Joe Adler has recently been offered a job as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company that develops software products and web applications for the healthcare industry. He would like to implement DevSec Hardening Framework to add a layer into the automation framework that configures operating systems and services and takes care of difficult settings, compliance guidelines, cryptography recommendations, and secure defaults.
To apply DevSec Hardening Framework to the machine, he scanned the machine using Nessus scanning tool; he then checked the compliance results before using DevSec Hardening Framework. Which of the following commands should Joe use to run DevSec Hardening Framework?.)
- A. Chef-solo -c solo.rb -j solo.json.
- B. Chef-solo -j solo.rb -c solo.json.
- C. Chef-solo -h solo.rb -m solo.json.
- D. Chef-solo -m solo.rb -h solo.json.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DevSec Hardening Framework is commonly implemented usingChef, and it is executed locally using the chef-solo command. The -c flag specifies the configuration file (solo.rb), and the -j flag specifies the JSON attributes file (solo.json). Option A correctly uses both required parameters in the proper format. The other options incorrectly swap or misuse flags that are not supported by Chef-solo. Running this command applies secure configurations, compliance controls, and cryptographic standards to the target system. Executing DevSec Hardening Framework during the Operate and Monitor stage ensures that systems remain secure, compliant, and resilient against misconfiguration-based attacks.
========
NEW QUESTION # 26
(PentaByte is a software product development company located in Austin, Texas. The organization would like to secure communication methods to maintain confidentiality and security. How can PentaByte achieve secure by communication secure coding principle?)
- A. By maintaining secure trust relationships.
- B. By maintaining defense by depth and reducing attack surface area.
- C. By preventing cyber security breach.
- D. By balancing the default configuration settings.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The secure communication principle focuses on protecting data as it moves between systems, services, and users. This is achieved by establishing and maintainingsecure trust relationships, which include strong authentication mechanisms, encryption, certificate management, and trusted communication channels.
Preventing breaches and reducing attack surface are broader security objectives, not specific to communication security. Balancing default configuration settings relates to secure defaults rather than communication. Secure trust relationships ensure that only authenticated and authorized entities can exchange data and that information remains confidential and tamper-proof during transmission. Embedding this principle into DevOps culture ensures that secure communication practices are consistently applied across all stages of the DevSecOps pipeline.
========
NEW QUESTION # 27
(Peter Dinklage has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer at SacramentSoft Solution Pvt. Ltd. He has deployed applications in docker containers. His team leader asked him to check the exposure of unnecessary ports. Which of the following commands should Peter use to check all the containers and the exposed ports?)
- A. docker ps --quiet | xargs docker inspect --format ': Ports='.
- B. docker ps --quiet | xargs docker inspect --all --format ': Ports='.
- C. docker ps --quiet | xargs docker inspect --all --format : Ports=.
- D. docker ps --quiet | xargs docker inspect --format : Ports.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To inspect exposed ports for running Docker containers, the recommended approach is to first retrieve container IDs using docker ps --quiet and then pass them to docker inspect. The --format option allows selective output of container configuration details, including port mappings. The command docker ps --quiet | xargs docker inspect --format ': Ports=' correctly extracts port information for each container. Options that include the --all flag or incorrect formatting are not valid for this inspection use case. Checking exposed ports is an important activity in the Operate and Monitor stage because unnecessary open ports increase the attack surface and may violate container security best practices. Regular inspection helps ensure that only required ports are exposed, supporting secure runtime operations.
========
NEW QUESTION # 28
(Patricia Cornwell has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company that provides custom software solutions. She would like to use GitMiner to mine the secret credentials such as usernames and passwords, API credentials, and other sensitive data from GitHub. Therefore, to start the scanning, she cloned the repo to the local machine by using the git clonehttp://github.com/UnkL4b/GitMinercommand; then, she moved to the current directory using $ cd GitMiner command. Which of the following commands should Patricia use to install the dependencies?)
- A. pip3 install -r requirement.txt.
- B. pip3 install -q requirement.txt.
- C. pip3 install -d requirement.txt.
- D. pip3 install -m requirement.txt.
Answer: A
Explanation:
GitMiner is a Python-based tool, and like most Python projects, it manages its dependencies through a requirements file named requirements.txt. The correct way to install all dependencies listed in this file is by using the pip3 install -r requirements.txt command. The -r flag instructs pip to read package names and versions from the specified file and install them accordingly. The other flags shown in the options do not correspond to dependency installation from a requirements file and would result in command errors or unexpected behavior. Installing dependencies correctly is a prerequisite for running GitMiner successfully.
During the Code stage, tools like GitMiner help identify hard-coded secrets and sensitive information early, reducing the risk of credential leakage and preventing security incidents later in the DevSecOps pipeline.
NEW QUESTION # 29
(Sarah Wheeler is an experienced DevSecOps engineer. She recently joined an IT company that develops software products for customers stretched across the globe. Sarah would like to use a security testing tool that protects the application from false positives, network sniffing, tampering with code, etc. The tool should monitor the incoming traffic to the server and APIs for suspicious activities and help her team in remediating them during runtime. Which of the following tools should Sarah select that will help her team in precisely detecting and remediating the security issues in the application code during runtime?.)
- A. SAST.
- B. IAST.
- C. DAST.
- D. RASP.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) operates from within the application runtime environment, monitoring incoming traffic, API calls, and execution behavior in real time. Because it has deep visibility into application logic and execution context, RASP can accurately detect attacks such as injection, tampering, and abnormal behavior while minimizing false positives. SAST analyzes source code statically, DAST tests running applications externally, and IAST combines some runtime insight with testing but does not actively block threats. RASP's ability to detect and remediate attacks during runtime makes it ideal for protecting applications in production environments, aligning with the Operate and Monitor stage of the DevSecOps pipeline.
NEW QUESTION # 30
(Rachel McAdams has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer in an IT company for the past 5 years.
Her organization embraced AWS cloud service due to robust security and cost-effective features offered by it.
To take proactive decisions related to the security issues and to minimize the overall security risk, Rachel integrated ThreatModeler with AWS. ThreatModeler utilizes various services in AWS to produce a robust threat model. How can Rachel automatically generate the threat model of her organization's current AWS environment in ThreatModeler?.)
- A. By using Accelerator.
- B. By using STRIDE per Element.
- C. By using YAML spec-based orchestration tools.
- D. By using Architect.
Answer: A
Explanation:
ThreatModeler'sAcceleratorcapability allows automatic generation of threat models directly from an organization's live AWS environment. It connects to AWS services, analyzes deployed resources, and converts them into architectural diagrams and threat models without manual input. YAML-based orchestration tools and STRIDE per Element are methodologies used for modeling but do not automatically ingest live cloud configurations. Architect is a design construct, not an automation engine. Using Accelerator during the Plan stage enables proactive, continuous threat modeling, ensuring that evolving cloud infrastructure is always assessed for risk and security gaps.
========
NEW QUESTION # 31
(Elizabeth Moss has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in San Diego, California. Due to the robust security and cost-effective service provided by AWS, her organization transferred all the workloads from on-prem to AWS cloud in 2017. Elizabeth would like to prevent committing AWS keys into repositories; therefore, she created a global git-templates directory using command line. Then, she created another directory, named it as hooks, wherein she created a file named pre- commit. In the pre-commit file, Elizabeth pasted the script that would prevent committing AWS keys into the repositories. She would like to ensure that the hook is executable. Which of the following command should Elizabeth run to make sure that the pre-commit hook is executable?)
- A. chmod a+x ~/.git-templates/hooks/pre-commit.
- B. chmod a+e ~/.hooks/git-templates/pre-commit.
- C. chmod a+x ~/.hooks/git-templates/pre-commit.
- D. chmod a+e ~/.git-templates/hooks/pre-commit.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Git hooks must have executable permissions to run automatically during Git operations such as commits. The standard way to make a file executable on Unix-like systems is by using the chmod command with the +x flag. In Elizabeth's setup, the pre-commit hook is located in the ~/.git-templates/hooks/ directory, so the correct command is chmod a+x ~/.git-templates/hooks/pre-commit. The a+x option grants execute permission to all users, ensuring that the hook runs regardless of the user context. Options using +e are invalid because e is not a recognized permission flag. Ensuring that the hook is executable during the Code stage helps prevent accidental exposure of AWS credentials by enforcing security checks before commits are finalized.
NEW QUESTION # 32
(Gabriel Jarret has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in Houston, Texas. He is using Vault to manage secrets and protect sensitive data. On February 1, 2022, Gabriel wrote the secret using vault kv put secret/wejskt command. On February 10, 2022, his team detected a brute-force attack using Splunk monitoring tool. Gabriel would like to delete the secrets in the vault that he wrote on February 1, 2022. Which of the following commands should Gabriel use to delete a secret in Vault secret management tool?)
- A. vault kv delete secret/wejskt.
- B. vault kv del secret/wejskt.
- C. vault kv -delete secret/wejskt.
- D. vault kv -del secret/wejskt.
Answer: B
Explanation:
HashiCorp Vault provides a key-value (KV) secrets engine for securely storing sensitive data. To remove a secret from the KV store, the correct command is vault kv del <path>. This command deletes the secret data at the specified path. Options using -delete or -del are syntactically incorrect, and vault kv delete is not a valid Vault CLI command. Proper secret deletion is an essential part of secret lifecycle management, especially when credentials may have been compromised. Performing this action during the Operate and Monitor stage helps contain security incidents, reduce exposure, and ensure that compromised secrets are no longer accessible. Timely deletion of secrets supports effective incident response and strengthens overall security posture.
========
NEW QUESTION # 33
(Maria Howell is working as a senior DevSecOps engineer at Global SoftSec Pvt. Ltd. Her team is currently working on the development of a cybersecurity software. There are 5 developers who are working on code development. Howell's team is using a private GitHub repository for the source code development. Which of the following commands should Howell use to grab the online updates and merge them with her local work?.)
- A. $ git grabs remotename branchname.
- B. $ git get remotename branchname.
- C. $ git pull remotename branchname.
- D. $ git push remotename branchname.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The git pull command is used to fetch changes from a remote repository and automatically merge them into the current local branch. In collaborative development environments, especially when multiple developers are committing code to a shared repository, regularly pulling updates is essential to stay synchronized and avoid merge conflicts. The syntax git pull <remote-name> <branch-name> correctly specifies the source of the updates. Commands such as git get and git grabs do not exist in Git, and git push performs the opposite action by sending local changes to the remote repository rather than retrieving updates. Using git pull during the Code stage supports continuous collaboration and ensures that developers integrate the latest changes securely and efficiently.
========
NEW QUESTION # 34
(Kevin Williamson has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an MNC company for the past 5 years. In January of 2017, his organization migrated all the applications and data from on-prem to AWS cloud due to the robust security feature and cost-effective services provided by Amazon. His organization is using Amazon DevOps services to develop software products securely and quickly. To detect errors in the code and to catch bugs in the application code, Kevin integrated PHPStan into the AWS pipeline for static code analysis. What will happen if security issues are detected in the application code?.)
- A. The integrated PHPStan into the AWS pipeline will invoke AWS Elastic BeanStalk to parse and send result to the security hub.
- B. The integrated PHPStan into the AWS pipeline will invoke the AWS Lambda function to parse and send result to the security hub.
- C. The integrated PHPStan into the AWS pipeline will invoke AWS CloudFormation to parse and send result to the security hub.
- D. The integrated PHPStan into the AWS pipeline will invoke AWS Config to parse and send result to the security hub.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In AWS-based DevSecOps pipelines, static analysis tools such as PHPStan commonly send their results to AWS services through event-driven processing. When PHPStan detects security issues, the results are typically parsed and processed by anAWS Lambda function, which can transform findings and forward them to AWS Security Hub. CloudFormation is used for infrastructure provisioning, AWS Config evaluates configuration compliance, and Elastic Beanstalk is an application deployment service-none of these are suited for parsing and relaying scan results. Lambda functions provide a scalable and serverless way to handle scan outputs automatically. This integration ensures that security findings are centralized, visible, and actionable, aligning with secure automation practices during the Code stage.
========
NEW QUESTION # 35
(Debra Aniston has recently joined an MNC company as a DevSecOps engineer. Her organization develops various types of software products and web applications. The DevSecOps team leader provided an application code and asked Debra to detect and mitigate security issues. Debra used w3af tool and detected cross-site scripting and SQL injection vulnerability in the source code. Based on this information, which category of security testing tools is represented by w3af?.)
- A. SAST.
- B. DAST.
- C. IAST.
- D. SCA.
Answer: B
Explanation:
w3af (Web Application Attack and Audit Framework) is aDynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) tool. It analyzes running web applications by sending crafted requests and observing responses to identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and authentication flaws. Unlike SAST tools, w3af does not require access to source code and instead operates externally, simulating real-world attack behavior.
SCA focuses on third-party dependencies, and IAST requires runtime instrumentation within the application.
Since Debra detected vulnerabilities by actively interacting with the application, w3af clearly represents DAST. DAST tools are especially valuable during the Build and Test stage, as they validate application behavior from an attacker's perspective before deployment.
========
NEW QUESTION # 36
(Jason Wylie has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in Sacramento, California. He would like to use Jenkins for CI and Azure Pipelines for CD to deploy a Spring Boot app to an Azure Container Service (AKS) Kubernetes cluster. He created a namespace for deploying the Jenkins in AKS, and then deployed the Jenkins app to the Pod. Which of the following commands should Jason run to see the pods that have been spun up and running?)
- A. kubectl get pods -k Jenkins.
- B. kubectl get pods -s jenkins.
- C. kubectl get pods -p jenkins.
- D. kubectl get pods -n jenkins.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Kubernetes uses namespaces to logically isolate resources such as pods, services, and deployments. When an application like Jenkins is deployed into a specific namespace, the correct way to view the pods running in that namespace is by using the -n (or --namespace) flag with the kubectl get pods command. The command kubectl get pods -n jenkins instructs Kubernetes to list all pods in the "jenkins" namespace. The other options use invalid or unrelated flags that are not supported for namespace selection. Verifying pod status during the Release and Deploy stage is essential to ensure that applications have been deployed successfully and are running as expected before exposing services or proceeding to monitoring. This step supports deployment validation and operational readiness in Kubernetes-based DevSecOps environments.
NEW QUESTION # 37
(Victor Garber is a DevSecOps team leader in SanSec Pvt. Ltd. His organization develops various types of software products and web applications. Currently, his team is working on security of Java-based web application product. How can Victor identify vulnerabilities that are missed in pre-production testing activities?.)
- A. By performing build-time checks.
- B. By performing deploy-time checks.
- C. By performing test-time checks.
- D. By performing commit-time checks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Deploy-time checks are designed to identify vulnerabilities that may not surface during earlier stages such as commit-time, build-time, or test-time checks. These checks analyze applications in environments that closely resemble or are part of production, making it possible to detect configuration issues, runtime vulnerabilities, and environment-specific weaknesses. Pre-production testing often cannot fully replicate production conditions, so deploy-time checks act as an additional safety net. Commit-time and build-time checks focus on code quality and static analysis, while test-time checks validate application behavior in controlled environments. Deploy-time checks therefore help Victor uncover vulnerabilities missed earlier, improving overall security assurance before or during deployment.
========
NEW QUESTION # 38
(Peter McCarthy is working in TetraVerse Soft Solution Pvt. Ltd. as a DevSecOps engineer. His organization develops customized software products and web applications. To develop software products quickly and securely, his organization has been using AWS cloud-based services, including AWS DevOps services. Peter would like to use CloudMapper to examine the AWS cloud environment and perform auditing for security issues. Which of the following privileges should Peter possess in order to collect information about the AWS account?.)
- A. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/SecurityCheck arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-function/ViewOnlyAccess::
EditOnlyAccess. - B. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/SecurityAudit::SecurityCheck arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-role
/ViewOnlyAccess:: EditOnlyAccess. - C. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/SecurityAudit arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-function/ViewOnlyAccess.
- D. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/AWSLambdaFullAccess arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-role/ViewOnlyAccess.
Answer: C
Explanation:
CloudMapper requires read-only access to AWS resources in order to collect metadata, visualize architectures, and perform security analysis without modifying infrastructure. The AWS-managed policy SecurityAuditprovides permissions to view security-related configuration across services, while ViewOnlyAccessallows read-only access to AWS resources more broadly. Together, these policies enable CloudMapper to gather comprehensive information about the AWS environment without granting write privileges. The other options either reference invalid policy names, incorrect formatting, or excessive permissions such as AWSLambdaFullAccess, which are unnecessary and violate least-privilege principles.
Granting SecurityAudit and ViewOnlyAccess aligns with secure auditing practices during the Operate and Monitor stage.
========
NEW QUESTION # 39
(Robert Wheeler has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company for the past 5 years. His organization develops software products and web applications related to AutoCAD. Rob would like to integrate Rapid7 tCell Next-Gen Cloud WAF and RASP Tool with AWS CloudFront to protect application by identifying suspicious actors, enforcing content security policies (CSPs), and securing against unvalidated HTTP redirections on web applications. How can Rob deploy the tCell agent as a CloudFormation stack into his organization AWS account?.)
- A. By plugging into CloudFront through Lambda@Edge.
- B. By plugging into CloudFormation through Lambda@Edge.
- C. By plugging into CloudFront through Lambda Function.
- D. By plugging into CloudFormation through Lambda Function.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When integrating security controls at the CDN edge with AWS CloudFront, the typical deployment model usesLambda@Edge, which allows code to execute at CloudFront edge locations on viewer request/response or origin request/response events. Deploying the tCell agent "as a CloudFormation stack" describes packaging the required AWS resources (IAM roles, functions, permissions, and CloudFront associations) into infrastructure-as-code, but the actual attachment point for CloudFront request/response processing is Lambda@Edge. Option C correctly reflects this: "plugging into CloudFront through Lambda@Edge." Standard Lambda functions run in regional AWS environments and cannot directly run at CloudFront edge locations in the same way; therefore, "CloudFront through Lambda Function" is not the best match for edge enforcement needs like CSP handling and redirect protections. Options that claim "plugging into CloudFormation" misunderstand CloudFormation's role: it deploys resources, but it is not the runtime integration point. Hence, CloudFront + Lambda@Edge is the correct deployment approach.
NEW QUESTION # 40
(Jayson Smith is working as a DevSecOps engineer in an MNC company located in Tampa, Florida. The senior software developer of his company, Sandra Oliver, has uploaded an application in her GitHub repository that might contain security vulnerabilities and has provided the URL to the DevSecOps team.
Jayson would like to analyze the application developed by Sandra to detect and mitigate the security issues in the application code; therefore, he would like to clone Sandra's GitHub repository to his computer. Which of the following commands should Jayson use to clone the repository of another user to his computer?)
- A. $ git clonehttps://github.com/USERNAME/REPOSITORY.git.
- B. $ github clonehttps://github.com/USERNAME/REPOSITORY.git.
- C. $ git clonehttps://github.com/REPOSITORY/USERNAME.git.
- D. $ github clonehttps://github.com/REPOSITORY/USERNAME.git.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloning a GitHub repository requires the standard Git command git clone followed by the correct repository URL format. GitHub repositories are structured as https://github.com/USERNAME/REPOSITORY.git, where USERNAME represents the account or organization name and REPOSITORY represents the project name.
Option B follows this exact structure. Options using github clone are invalid because github is not a Git CLI command. Options that reverse the order of USERNAME and REPOSITORY do not match GitHub's repository structure and will fail. Cloning repositories during the Code stage allows DevSecOps engineers to run static analysis, dependency scanning, and other security checks locally without modifying the original repository, supporting secure and controlled analysis workflows.
========
NEW QUESTION # 41
......
Provide Valid Dumps To Help You Prepare For EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE) Exam: https://actualtests.prep4away.com/ECCouncil-certification/braindumps.312-97.ete.file.html