[Jul 23, 2026] 300-215 Exam Dumps 100% Same Q&A In Your Real Exam
300-215 Test Engine Dumps Training With 133 Questions
Cisco 300-215 exam, also known as Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps, is a certification exam that is designed to test the knowledge and skills of IT professionals in conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies. 300-215 exam is part of the CyberOps Associate certification program and is intended for individuals who are interested in pursuing a career in cybersecurity or those who are already working in the field and are looking to enhance their skills and knowledge.
Holding the Cisco 300-215 certification validates a candidate's expertise in conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies. It also demonstrates the candidate's commitment to advancing their career in cybersecurity and their dedication to staying up-to-date with the latest cybersecurity trends and technologies. Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps certification exam provides an opportunity for professionals to showcase their skills and knowledge in the field and to differentiate themselves from their peers.
NEW QUESTION # 67
What is the steganography anti-forensics technique?
- A. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places
- B. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file
- C. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation
- D. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 68
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is analyzing a .LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?
- A. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a legitimate extension.
- B. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is a ransomware which will encrypt the documents of a victim.
- C. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.
- D. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The metadata in the exhibit reveals a strong indicator that this .LNK file (shortcut) is malicious:
* The shortcut file is named "ds7002.pdf" but actually points to the execution of PowerShell:# Full path:
C:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\powershell.exe
* Arguments include:# -noni -ep bypass $z = '...'; indicating an attempt to run a PowerShell script with execution policy bypassed (a known tactic for fileless malware delivery).
* The file is masked as a PDF (common social engineering technique), and PowerShell execution via .
LNK is a signature technique used by many malware families to initiate second-stage payloads or scripts.
Given this, the correct and safest course of action is to:
# Open the .LNK file in a sandbox environment (D).
This enables safe behavioral analysis to observe what actions it attempts upon execution without endangering live systems.
Other options are inappropriate:
* A (ignoring the threat due to extension) is dangerous - .LNKs can trigger code.
* B (upload to virus engine) is only helpful for known malware and lacks behavioral context.
* C (quarantine) is preventive but not investigative - sandboxing provides visibility.
Reference: CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on "Threat Hunting and Malware Analysis," section covering shortcut (.LNK) based attacks, PowerShell-based threats, and sandbox behavioral analysis strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Forensics Techniques]What is the transmogrify anti-forensics technique?
- A. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type
- B. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places
- C. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file
- D. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation
Answer: A
Explanation:
The transmogrify anti-forensics technique refers specifically to the act of modifying the file header of a malicious file to disguise it as another file type. This type of manipulation helps evade detection by signature-based security tools and forensics analysis systems that rely on file headers to determine file type and purpose.
For example, a malicious .exe file might have its header changed to appear as a .jpg or .pdf to trick analysts or automated systems into treating it as benign. This tactic is particularly effective in bypassing content filtering and malware detection solutions that do not perform deep inspection beyond headers.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Obfuscation and Anti- Forensics Techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)
- A. Update the AV to block any file with hash "cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70".
- B. Block all emails with pdf attachments.
- C. Block all emails sent from an @state.gov address.
- D. Block all emails with subject containing "cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70".
- E. Block emails sent from [email protected] with an attached pdf file with md5 hash
"cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70".
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
The XML (STIX/CybOX format) details an email-based threat indicator. Specifically:
* The email address contains "@state.gov" (not exact match, so blocking all @state.gov would be overbroad).
* The attachment is a PDF file with a specified MD5 hash: cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70.
* The attachment size is 87022 bytes.
From a threat mitigation perspective:
* A is correct: Updating AV to block or flag files matching the malicious hash is a standard response.
* D is correct: The email address context and hash together provide a precise rule for blocking-this prevents false positives.
Incorrect options:
* B overreaches by blocking an entire domain without confirming threat context.
* C would stop all PDFs, which is impractical.
* E is incorrect; there is no indication that the hash appears in the subject line.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which tool is used for reverse engineering malware?
- A. SNORT
- B. Wireshark
- C. NMAP
- D. Ghidra
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ghidrais a free and open-source software reverse engineering (SRE) suite developed by the NSA. It includes disassembly, decompilation, and debugging tools specifically designed for analyzing malware and other compiled programs.
The Cisco CyberOps guide referencesGhidraas a top tool for reverse engineering binary files during malware analysis tasks, making it ideal for understanding malicious code behavior at a deeper level.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Refer to the exhibit.
An alert came with a potentially suspicious activity from a machine in HR department. Which two IOCs should the security analyst flag? (Choose two.)
- A. powershell.exe used on HR machine
- B. WScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe
- C. cmd.exe executing from \Device\HarddiskVolume3\
- D. cmd.exe starting powershell.exe with Base64 conversion
- E. WScript.exe initiated by powershell.exe
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The exhibit shows a series of process executions that form a suspicious chain involving scripting engines and obfuscated commands:
* One critical indicator iscmd.exe executing PowerShell with obfuscated (Base64-encoded) arguments
. The use of Base64 is a known method used by attackers to mask malicious commands. This aligns with attack techniques defined under MITRE ATT&CK T1059 (Command and Scripting Interpreter) and T1086 (PowerShell abuse). Therefore, option D is valid.
* Another important IOC isWScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe, which is abnormal in typical business environments. This indicates potential misuse of Windows Script Host (WSH) to launch commands, often seen in phishing or malware dropper scenarios. Thus, option E is also valid.
Options A and B by themselves are not definitive IOCs-PowerShell and cmd.exe are legitimate administrative tools and frequently used in Windows environments.
Option C is not supported by the exhibit-the reverse (powershell.exe initiated by WScript.exe) is what's seen, not the other way around.
These patterns align with theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, which specifies that chaining of interpreters (e.g., WScript # cmd # PowerShell) with encoded commands is a key indicator of compromise during forensic analysis.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Identifying Malicious Activity in Host-Based Artifacts and Command-Line Analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 73 
Refer to the exhibit. After a cyber attack, an engineer is analyzing an alert that was missed on the intrusion detection system. The attack exploited a vulnerability in a business critical, web-based application and violated its availability. Which two migration techniques should the engineer recommend? (Choose two.)
- A. address space randomization
- B. data execution prevention
- C. heap-based security
- D. encapsulation
- E. NOP sled technique
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 74 
Refer to the exhibit. What should an engineer determine from this Wireshark capture of suspicious network traffic?
- A. There are signs of a DNS attack, and the engineer should hide the BIND version and restrict zone transfers as a countermeasure.
- B. There are signs of a malformed packet attack, and the engineer should limit the packet size and set a threshold of bytes as a countermeasure.
- C. There are signs of SYN flood attack, and the engineer should increase the backlog and recycle the oldest half-open TCP connections.
- D. There are signs of ARP spoofing, and the engineer should use Static ARP entries and IP address-to- MAC address mappings as a countermeasure.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 75
Refer to the exhibit.
The application x-dosexec with hash
691c65e4fb1d19f82465df1d34ad51aaeceba14a78167262dc7b2840a6a6aa87 is reported as malicious and labeled as "Trojan.Generic" by the threat intelligence tool. What is considered an indicator of compromise?
- A. modified registry
- B. process injection
- C. data compression
- D. hooking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The exhibit lists several behaviors under categories such as Remote Access, Stealer/Phishing, Persistence, and Evasive Marks. Notably, under "Persistence" it states:
* "Writes data to a remote process"
This behavior is indicative of "process injection," a technique where malware writes or injects malicious code into the address space of another process. This allows the malware to evade detection and run within the context of a legitimate process.
This matches the MITRE ATT&CK technique T1055 (Process Injection), which is also discussed in the Cisco CyberOps Associate guide under evasion and persistence tactics used by malware.
While modified registry and data compression are possible signs of malware, they are not explicitly referenced in the exhibit. The definitive indicator shown is related to process injection.
Therefore, the correct answer is: C. process injection.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of code created the snippet?
- A. VB Script
- B. PowerShell
- C. Python
- D. Bash Script
Answer: A
Explanation:
The syntax in the code snippet includes:
* On Error Resume Next- a classic VBScript error-handling directive.
* function ... end functionstructure.
* Use ofMid(),Chr(), andAsc()functions - all commonly used in VBScript for string manipulation.
* CInt()for conversion - typical in VBScript.
These characteristics alignexactly with VBScript, which is frequently used in malicious macros and obfuscated payloads for malware distribution, as covered in the Cisco CyberOps Associate curriculum when analyzing scripts and encoded threats.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the Wireshark output, what are two indicators of compromise for detecting an Emotet malware download? (Choose two.)
- A. Server: nginx
- B. filename= "Fy.exe"
- C. Hash value: 5f31ab113af08=1597090577
- D. Domain name:iraniansk.com
- E. Content-Type: application/octet-stream
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 78
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two determinations should be made about the attack from the Apache access logs? (Choose two.)
- A. The attacker used the WordPress file manager plugin to upload r57.php.
- B. The attacker uploaded the WordPress file manager trojan.
- C. The attacker performed a brute force attack against WordPress and used SQL injection against the backend database.
- D. The attacker used r57 exploit to elevate their privilege.
- E. The attacker logged on normally to WordPress admin page.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The Apache access logs in the exhibit show a sequence of HTTP requests and responses indicative of a malicious upload via WordPress:
* A POST to:
* /wp-admin/admin-ajax.php with parameters that include uploading r57.php (a known PHP web shell).
* The uploaded file name appears as r57.php in:# &name=%5B%5D=r57.php&FILES...
* There are plugin installation and activation attempts, specifically for:
* file-manager plugin:# plugin=file-manager&...
* Which is known to be vulnerable and exploited for file uploads.
* GET requests to:
* /wp-content/57.php and variations such as 57.php?28 - This suggests that r57.php was successfully uploaded and is being accessed.
These logs reveal that:
* D. The attacker used the WordPress file manager plugin to upload r57.php - confirmed by plugin activity and file uploads.
* B. The attacker uploaded the WordPress file manager trojan - as evidenced by the direct access to /wp- content/57.php (r57 shell variant).
Other options are invalid or speculative:
* A is correct in identifying r57 as a web shell, but the logs don't show privilege escalation.
* C mentions brute force and SQL injection, which are not indicated here.
* E assumes legitimate access - logs suggest exploitation, not standard login.
Reference: CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on "Analyzing HTTP and Apache Logs for Intrusion Behavior" and "Common CMS Exploits via Plugins and Upload
NEW QUESTION # 79 
multiple machines behave abnormally. A sandbox analysis reveals malware. What must the administrator determine next?
- A. source code of the malicious attachment
- B. if Patient 0 still demonstrates suspicious behavior
- C. if Patient 0 tried to connect to another workstation
- D. if the file in Patient 0 is encrypted
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key goal during lateral movement analysis is to determine whether the malware spread or attempted to spread beyond the initially compromised system. This is crucial for containment and scoping of the incident.
Logs, sandbox behavior, or network activity may show if Patient 0 initiated outbound connections to other systems, potentially propagating malware across the environment.
Correct answer: D. if Patient 0 tried to connect to another workstation.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is analyzing a TCP stream in Wireshark after a suspicious email with a URL. What should be determined about the SMB traffic from this stream?
- A. It is exploiting redirect vulnerability
- B. It is requesting authentication on the user site.
- C. It is sharing access to files and printers.
- D. It is redirecting to a malicious phishing website
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Wireshark output shows SMB protocol transactions, including NT Create AndX Response and Write AndX Response, indicating the transfer of files or objects. SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used for file sharing and printer access in Windows networks. The log does not indicate phishing or redirection behavior but rather normal SMB communication such as accessing files or shared resources.
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NEW QUESTION # 81
A scanner detected a malware-infected file on an endpoint that is attempting to beacon to an external site. An analyst has reviewed the IPS and SIEM logs but is unable to identify the file's behavior. Which logs should be reviewed next to evaluate this file further?
- A. email security appliance
- B. network device
- C. Antivirus solution
- D. DNS server
Answer: C
Explanation:
If IPS and SIEM logs do not give enough insight into a file's behavior, the next logical step is to review the Antivirus solutionlogs. These logs often provide detailed behavior analytics such as:
* File actions and access patterns
* Registry modifications
* File execution history
The Cisco CyberOps guide emphasizes AV logs as critical forensic artifacts for understanding endpoint-based infections, especially when beaconing or suspicious activity is suspected.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A security team needs to prevent a remote code execution vulnerability. The vulnerability can be exploited only by sending '${ string in the HTTP request. WAF rule is blocking '${', but system engineers detect that attackers are executing commands on the host anyway. Which action should the security team recommend?
- A. Enable URL decoding on WAF.
- B. Block incoming web traffic.
- C. Deploy antimalware solution.
- D. Add two WAF rules to block 'S' and '{' characters separately.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) are configured to block specific patterns (like${), attackers may bypass this using URL encoding (e.g.,%24%7B). In such cases, the WAF must decode these patterns before applying matching rules. EnablingURL decodingensures the WAF recognizes encoded payloads and applies protections appropriately. This is a recommended hardening strategy against bypass techniques for command injection and remote code execution.
Reference: Cisco CyberOps v1.2 Guide, Chapter on WAFs and Input Validation Techniques.
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NEW QUESTION # 83
Which scripts will search a log file for the IP address of 192.168.100.100 and create an output file named parsed_host.log while printing results to the console?
- A. Option B
- B. Option D
- C. Option A
- D. Option C
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 84
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound tcp/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
- A. centralized user management
- B. enterprise block listing solution
- C. anti-malware software
- D. intrusion prevention system
- E. data and workload isolation
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 85
What is the goal of an incident response plan?
- A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization
- B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack
- C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions
- D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading
Answer: D
Explanation:
The goal of an incident response plan (IRP) is to provide structured procedures for responding to cybersecurity incidents in a way that limits damage, contains the threat, and ensures business continuity. As outlined in the NIST SP 800-61 and Cisco CyberOps Associate study guide, containment and minimizing the impact of incidents is the primary goal of an IRP.
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NEW QUESTION # 86
A security team receives reports of multiple files causing suspicious activity on users' workstations. The file attempted to access highly confidential information in a centralized file server. Which two actions should be taken by a security analyst to evaluate the file in a sandbox? (Choose two.)
- A. Inspect file type.
- B. Inspect PE header.
- C. Inspect processes.
- D. Inspect file hash.
- E. Inspect registry entries
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
When analyzing suspicious files in a sandbox environment, a security analyst focuses on identifying and evaluating their behavior in a controlled setting to confirm potential malicious activity:
* Inspect processes (B): Observing the processes that the file spawns or injects into during execution helps identify malicious actions or privilege escalation. This is a crucial part of dynamic analysis in the sandbox environment.
* Inspect PE header (E): The PE (Portable Executable) header contains metadata about how the file will execute on Windows systems. It reveals details such as the entry point, libraries used, and whether the file is suspiciously crafted or packed, which can be strong indicators of malicious behavior.
The other options (A, C, D) are important in the broader forensic analysis, but within thesandbox dynamic analysis, focusing on process behavior and file execution headers is critical for determining how the file interacts with the system and whether it is indeed malicious.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding Malware Analysis, Dynamic Analysis of Malware, page 389-392.
NEW QUESTION # 87
During a routine inspection of system logs, a security analyst notices an entry where Microsoft Word initiated a PowerShell command with encoded arguments. Given that the user's role does not involve scripting or advanced document processing, which action should the analyst take to analyze this output for potential indicators of compromise?
- A. Confirm that the Microsoft Word license is valid and the application is updated to the latest version.
- B. Validate the frequency of PowerShell usage across all hosts to establish a baseline.
- C. Monitor the Microsoft Word startup times to ensure they align with business hours.
- D. Review the encoded PowerShell arguments to decode and determine the intent of the script.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guidecurriculum, when analyzing suspicious behavior-especially when scripts or shell commands are executed from applications like Word (which is uncommon)-the encoded PowerShell payload must be decoded to determine if malicious intent is present. Deobfuscation is a critical step in identifying command-and-control behavior, persistence, or malware execution paths.
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NEW QUESTION # 88
What is the purpose of YARA rules in malware analysis and now do the rules atd in identifying, classifying, and documenting malware?
- A. They automatically remove malware from an infected system while documenting the behavior of the APT
- B. They create a backup of identified malware and classify it according to its origin and source
- C. They use specific static patterns and attributes to identify and classify matware, characterizing its nature
- D. They encrypt identified malware on a system to prevent execution of files with the same classification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 89
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Cisco 300-215 certification exam is designed for cybersecurity professionals who want to enhance their skills and knowledge in forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies. 300-215 exam is part of the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification program, which is aimed at providing professionals with the necessary skills to handle sophisticated cyber threats.
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